Wipro Placement Paper

Wipro Interview Questions
Technical Question
1. Difference between structure and class.
2. How to resolve ambiguity in multiple inheritance?
3. What is static and dynamic binding in C?
4. What is the difference between structure and array?
5. Difference between calloc and malloc & realloc?
6. What is static class and static member function?
7. What is pointer to a pointer? How it is declared and how is it accessed?
8. What is the difference between function overriding and overloading?
9. What is the scope of a variable?
10. What is the difference between C & C++?
11. Some questions on templates and exceptions.
12. What is stream? How is it opened and describe file handling in CPP?
13. Some questions related to Hard Disc: What is an HDD? How is a file accessed from the HDD? Why isn’t it used in place of a RAM? What is RAID describe its basic structure? Where is the file information stored on the hard disk? What is FAT? How files are physically arranged on the hard disc?

14. What is JVM, what is BYTE CODE? What is multithreading? How can it be implemented using C, write a program to describe it? What is the complexity of radix sort and how is it determined? A sequence of 15 numbers was to be sorted using heap sort. (He stopped me after the 3rd iteration).

15. Some questions related to java-script, dynamic HTML, static HTML, ASP, .NET A query on natural join in SQL, what is the need of normalization ? What is data inconsistency and redundancy? What is the basic difference between file systems and database systems? What are triggers and assertions in SQL? How can you use C to connect with Oracle SQL database? (Using Oracle 8i PRO C/C++ precompiled )A complicated query on a trigger

16. What is fork system call? How a child process called and what is happens to the parent? In C what is spawnv () function, describe its execution. How can you use C for writing assembly language programs?

17. If you have done any project then try to bring the discussion towards it. I was interviewed on the project for about 20 min and I kept on explaining till he took up the HR form and signed it!!!! The interviewer was very impressed with my technical knowledge and gave his feedback to the HR interviewer as “Very Confident & sound technical skills”.


HR Interview
18. I was initially asked to describe myself. Since I had presented four papers in different places in India I took his attention towards it by telling that one of my hobbies is public presentation, and I supported it with example. He asked me about each and every paper and I took 45 min to explain him all the papers. Then he asked whether I wanted to know anything about WIPRO. I asked him around 11 - 12 questions and he was pretty impressed. The trick was to just to nod your head and frame the next question in line while he was explaining one question.

19. WIPRO has undertaken a project named “MOBIO” it deals with biometrics. Since our minor project is on fingerprint recognition I would like to know something about MOBIO.

20. After gaining the billion dollar status Mr. Azim Premjee said that appreciation of rupee is a concern. What should be the possible steps so that it no more remains a concern?

21. U have diversified from soaps to software as well as maintained a constant growth rate. What is the secret of your success?

22. The work culture at WIPRO is great. How do you maintain it?
23. How do you allocate projects among your employees?
24. How do you select employees for foreign duty?
25. What are six sigma strategies and how do you implement it?
26. In the expression “WIPRO is a CMMi company”, what does ‘i’ signify?
27. Is SAP associated with you someway?

TCS Placement Paper

TCS Written Paper
Q1. Fill in the missing number in the sequence 5 7 11 ?? 35 67
(a) 24 (b) 33 (c) 19 (d) 18 (e) 25

Q2. In the following series, how many Ws are there such that each W is followed by a C next to it if the C is not followed by an S next to it?
W C W S Q M W C S M C W C C W Q M W
W C Q W C S C W A M C W C M
(a)3 (b) 5(c)6 (d)4 (e)7

Q3. If QMFBTF is coded as PLEASE how will HBJO be coded?
(a)MIND (b) ALERT (c) TRIAL (d) GAIN (e) BRAVE

Q4. Suppose the first and second letters in the word CONSTITUTIONAL was interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc. Print the letter that would then be the tenth letter counting from the right.
(a) T (b) I (c) N (d) O (e) U

Q5. How would the decimal number 520 be represented in a base -7 number System?
(a) 1564 (b) 1234 (c) 1342 (d) 1562 (e) 1672

Q6. What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit word computer?
(a) 199 (b) 251 (c) 201 (d) 233 (e) 257

Q7. If n = 10 x 18 x 22, which of the following is NOT an integer?
(a) n / 132 (b) n / 55 (c) n / 45 (d) n / 20 (e) n / 78

Q8. Which of the following is a power of 3?
a. 2672 b. 2898 c. 2735
d. 2187 e. 2413

Pick the odd one out
Q9. (a) ORACLE (b) INGRESS (c) UNIX (d) DB2 (e) SYBASE

Q10. (a)SAP (b) HTTP (c) WAP (d) SMTP (e) ARP

Q11. The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?
(a)(2m, 3m, 4m) (b)(1m, 2m, 4m) (c)(3m, 4m, 5m) (d)(3m, 3m, 3m) (e)(5m, 3m, 5m)

Q12. The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the number of vertices, the number of edges and the number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?
(a) (4,8,12) (b) (8,12,6) (c) (8,6,12) (d) (8,8,8) (e) (12,6,8)

Q13. Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?
(a) 7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7 (b) -7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7 (c) 7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7
(d) 7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7 (e) 7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7

Q28. Of the four vectors A, B, C, D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set
A = i+j, B = 3i+2j, C = -7i+j, D = 2i-3j
(a)BD (b) AD (c) BC (d) AC (e) AB

Q29. Evaluate the expression
M (373, 7) + R (5.8) + T (7.7) - R (3.4) where M stands for modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation Operation
(a) 13 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 19 (e) 21

Q30. Three independent mechanisms A, B and C have been incorporated for fuel saving in a car producing respectively 30%, 20% and 40% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net fuel efficiency achieved?
(a) 61 % (b) 64% (c) 62% (d) 66.4% (e) 69%

Q31. The scores in class exams and final exam of 2 students are given as below:
Class exam Final exam
3 1.4
3.5 1.65
Find the Class exam score of a student who has scored 6 in the Final exam.
(a) 12.2 (b) 13 (c) 10.1 (d) 10.2 (e) 12.5

BSNL Placement Paper

1. For a parallel plate capacitor which is being charged out of the following the incorrect statement is –
a). Energy stored in the capacitor does not enter it through the connecting wire through the space around the wires and plates of capacitor.
b.) Rate at which energy flows into this volume is equal to the integration of the poynting vector over the boundary of the volume between the plates.
c.) The poynting vector points everywhere radially outward of the volume between plates.
d.) The poynting vector points everywhere radially into the volume between the plates.
2. The presence of alkali oxides in alumino silicate ceramics is likely to result in dielectric breakdown due to –
a. )Polarization
b.)Conductivity
c.)Structural homogeneties
d) Ionization
3. Which of the following will serve as a donor impurity in silicon –
a.)Boron
b) Indium
c) Germanium
d) Antimony
4. Electrical contact materials used in switches, brushes and relays must possess –
a)High thermal conductivity and high melting point
b) Low thermal conductivity and low melting point
c) High thermal conductivity and low melting point.
d) Low thermal conductivity and high melting point.
5. The Maximum spectral response of the germanium and silicon is in the –
a) infrared region
b) ultraviolet region
c) visible region
d) x-ray region
6. For an insulating material, dielectric strength and dielectric loss should be respectively –
a) high and high
b) low and high
c.) high and low
d.) low and low
7. In a distortion factor meter, the filter at the front end is used to suppress –
a.) odd harmonics
b.) even harmonics
c.) fundamental component
d.) dc component
8. The coefficient of coupling between two air core coils depends on –
a). mutual inductance between two coils only
b). self inductances of the two coils only
c). mutual inductance and self inductances of the two coils
d.) none
9. Modern capacitors which have high capacitance in small size use a dielectric of –
a.) paper
b.) rubber
c.) ceramic
d.) Mylar
10. In any atom the potential energy of an orbiting electron is –
a.) always positive
b.) always negative
c.) sometime positive, sometime negative
d.) numerically less than its kinetic energy
11. A DE MOSFET differs from a JFET in the sense that it has no –
a.) channel
b.) gate
c.) P-N junctions
d.) substrate
12. The advantage of a semiconductor strain gauge over the normal strain gauge is that
a.) it is more sensitive
b.) it is more linear
c.) it is less temperature dependent
d.) it's cost is low
13. Barrier potential in a P-N junction is caused by –
a.) thermally generated electrons and holes
b.) diffusion of majority carriers across the junction
c.) migration of minority carriers across the junction
d.) flow of drift current
14. When an NPN transistor is properly biased then most of the electrons from the emitter –
a.) recombine with holes in the base
b.) recombine in the emitter itself
c.) pass through the base to the collector
d.) are stopped by the junction barrier
15. The value of r when a transistor is biased to cut off is –
a.) 0.5
b.) 0
c.) 1.0
d.) 0.8
16. A UJT can –
a.) be triggered by any one of it's three terminals
b.) not be triggered
c.) be triggered by two of its three terminal only
d.) be triggered by all of its terminals only
17. An SCR can only be turned off via it's –
a.) cathode
b.) anode
c.) gates
d) none
18. Gold is often diffused into silicon DN junction devices to –
a.) increase the recombination rate
b.) reduce the recombination rate
c.) make silicon a direct gap semiconductor
d.) make silicon semi-metal
19. With n nodes and b branches a network will have –
a.) (b + n) links
b.) b – n + 1 links
c.) b – n – 1 links
d.) b + n + 1 links
20. When a network has 10 nodes and 17 branches in all then the number of node pair voltages would be -
a.) 7
b.) 9
c.) 10
d.) 45
21. A two port network having a 6 dB loss will give –
a.) an output power which is one – quarter of the input power
b.) an output power which is one – half of the input power
c.) an output voltage which is 0.707 of the input voltage
d.) an output power which is 0.707 of the input power
22. While transporting a sensitive galvanometer –
a.) the terminals are kept shorted
b.) critical damping resistance is connected across the terminals
c.) the terminals are kept open circuited
d.) it does not matter as to what is connected across the terminals
23. A T type attenuator is designed for an attenuation of 40 dB and terminating resistance of 75 ohms. Which of the following values represent full series and R1 and shunt arm R2 ?
1. R1 = 147W 2. R1 = 153W
3. R2 = 1.5W 4. R2 = 3750W
a..) 1 and 3
b.). 1 and 4
c.). 2 and 3
d..) 2 and 4
24. For a transmission line, the characteristic impedance with inductance 0.294mH/m and capacitance 60pF/m is –
a..) 49w
b.). 60w
c..) 70w
d..) 140w
25. When the graph of a network has six branches with three tree branches then the minimum number of equations required for the solution of the network is –
a..) 2
b..) 3
c..) 4
d..) 5
26. Consider the following statement for a 2-port network
1. Z11 = Z22 2. h12 = h21
3. Y12 = -Y21 4. BC – AD = -1
then the network is reciprocal if and only if –
a..) 1 and 2 are correct
b.) 2 and 3 are correct
c.) 3 and 4 are correct
d.). 4 alone is correct
27. As a network contains only independent current sources and resistors then if the values of all resistors are doubled then the values of the node voltages are –
a.) will become half
b.) will remain uncha
c.). will become double
d.). cannot be determined unless the circuit configuration and the values of the resistors are known
28. The energy of electric field due to a spherical charge distribution of radius r and uniform charge density in vacuum is-
.
.
.
.
29. Maxwell’s divergence equation for the magnetic field is given b

30. When a short grounded vertical antenna has a length L which is 0.05 l at frequency f and if it’s radiation resistances at f is R Ohms, then it’s radiation resistance at a frequency 2f will be –
a). R/2 ohms
b). R ohms
c). 2R ohms
d). 4R ohms
31. In a cylindrical cavity resonator, the two modes which are degenerate would include
a.) TE111 and TM111
b). TE011 and TM011
c). TE022 and TM111
d). TE111 and TM011
32. When an antenna of input resistance 73 ohm is connected to a 50-ohm line and if the losses are ignored then it’s efficiency will be nearly
a). 0.19
b). 0.81
c). 0.97
d). 1.19
33. If an isolated conducting sphere in air has radius = 1/ 4pqe0 it capacitance will be
a). Zero
b). IF
c). 4pF
d). OF
34. When a dominant mode wave guide not terminated in it’s characteristic impedance is excited with a 10 GHz signal then if ‘d’ is the distance between two successive minima of the standing wave in the guide then
a). d = 1.5 cm
b). d is less then 1.5 cm
c). d is greater than 1.5 cm
d). d = 3cm
35. When a dipole antenna of l/8 length has an equivalent total loss resistance of 1.5 W then the efficiency of the antenna is
a). 0.89159 %
b). 8.9159 %
c). 89.159 %
d). 891.59 %
36. In commercial FM broadcasting, the maximum frequency deviation is normally
a). 5 KHz
b). 15 KHz
c). 75 KHz
d). 200 KHz
37. Weins bridge is used for measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is measurement of frequency in the applied voltage waveform is –
a). sinusoidal
b). square
c). rectangular
d). triangular
38. Strain gauge is –
a). not a transducer
b). an active transducer
c). not an electronic instrument
d). none
39. A high Q coil has –
a). large band width
b). high losses
c). low losses
d). flat response
40. In the case of an instrument reading of 8.3V with a 0 to 150 voltmeter having a guaranteed accuracy of 1% full scale reading, the percentage limiting error is –
a). 1.810%
b). 0.181%
c). 18.10%
d). 0.0018%
41. The 'h' parameter equivalent circuit of a junction transistor is valid for –
a). High frequency, large signal operation
b.) High frequency, small signal operation
c.) Low frequency, small signal operation
d). Low frequency, large signal operation
42. A system is causal if the output of any time depends only on –
a.) Values of input in the past and in the future
b). Values of input at that time and in the past
c). Values of input at that time and in the future
d). None
43. A iron cored choke is a –
a). Linear and active device
b). Non linear and passive device
c). Active device only
d). Linear device only
44. Poynting vector wattmeter uses –
a). Seebeck effect
b). Ferranti effect
c). Induction effect
d). Hall effect
45. Which one of the following is not a transducer in the true sense ?
a). Thermocouple
b). Piezoelectric pick – up
c). Photo voltaic cell
d). LCD
46. The term used to denote a static device that converts ac to dc, dc to ac, dc to dc or ac to ac is –
a). Converter system
b). Inverter
c). Chopper
d). Thyristor
47. It is an unidirectional device that blocks the current flow from cathode to anode –
a). SCR
b). PCR
c). VCR
d). DCR
48. An ideal constant current source is connected in series with an ideal constant voltage source. Considering together the combination will be a –
a). constant voltage source
b). constant current source
c). constant voltage and a constant current source or a constant power source
d). resistance
49. Anode current in an thyristor is made up of –
a). electrons only
b). electrons or holes
c). electrons and holes
d). holes only
50. For a pulse transformer, the material used for its core and the possible turn ratio from primary to secondary are respectively –
a). ferrite : 20 : 1
b). laminated iron : 1 : 1
c). ferrite : 1 : 1
d). powdered iron : 1 : 1
51. A converter which can operate in both 3 pulse and 6 pulse modes is a –
a.) 1 phase full converter
b). 3 phase half wave converter
c). 3 phase semi converter
d). 3 phase full converter
52. A single phase CSI has capacitor C as the load. For a constant source current, the voltage across the capacitor is –
a.) square wave
b.) triangular wave
c )step function
d.) pulsed wave
53. A single phase full wave midpoint thyristor converter uses a 230/200V transformer with centre tap on the secondary side. The P.I.V per thyristor is –
a). 100V
b). 141.4V
c). 200V
d). 282.8V
54. In dc choppers for chopping period T, the output voltage can be controlled by FM by varying –
a). T keeping Ton constant
b). Ton keeping T constant
c). Toff keeping T constant
d.) None of the above
55. From the hot metal surface electrons escape because
a). of change of state from metal to gas due to heat.
b). of change of stats from gas to metal.
c). the energy supplied is greater than the work function .
d). the energy is greater than Fermi level.
56. The most common device used for detection in radio receivers is –
a). amplifier
b). triode
c). diode
d). transistor
57. In a full wave rectifier the negative point in a circuit is
a). Either cathode
b). Either anode
c). The central tap on the high voltage secondary
d). Either plate
58. Negative feedback amplifier has a signal corrupted by noise as its input. The amplifier will-
a). Amplify the noise as much as the signal
b). Reduce the noise
c). Increase the noise
d). Not effect the noise
59. Match the given feedback circuit with it’s proper nomenclatures

a). Current series feedback
b). Current shunt feedback
c). Voltage series feedback
d). Voltage shunt feedback
60. Class A amplifier is used when
a). No phase inversion is required
b). Highest voltage gain is required
c). dc voltages are to be amplified
d). Minimum distortion is desired
61. Identify the correct match for the given transistor

a). Enhancement type P channel MOSFET
b). Depletion type N channel MOSFET
c). Enhancement type N channel MOSFET
d). Depletion type P channel MOSFET
62. In case a signal band limited to fm is sampled at a rate less than 2fm, the constructed signal will be
a). Distortionless
b). Small in amplitude
c). Having higher frequencies suppressed
d). Distorted
63. Quad 2 input AND gates IC No is –
a). 7411
b). 7404
c). 7400
d). 7408
64. Registers in which data is entered or taken out in serial form are referred as –
a). left shift register
b). right shift register
c). shift registers
d). none of the above
65. The expression can be simplified to

b.) AB + BC + CA

Birlasoft Placement Paper

1.In the command scanf, h is used for

Ans. Short int


2.A process is defined as

Ans. Program in execution


3.A thread is

Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)


4.What is the advantage of Win NT over Win 95

Ans. Robust and secure


5.How is memory management done in Win95

Ans. Through paging and segmentation


6.What is meant by polymorphism

Ans. Redfinition of a base class method in a derived class


7.What is the essential feature of inheritance

Ans. All properties of existing class are derived


8.What does the protocol FTP do

Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentification


9.In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol

Ans. Connection oriented


10.Why is a gateway used

Ans. To connect incompatible networks


11.How is linked list implemented

Ans. By referential structures


12.What method is used in Win95 in multitasking

Ans. Non preemptive check


13.What is meant by functional dependency


14.What is a semaphore

Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes


15.What is the precedence order from high to low ,of the symbols ( ) ++ /

Ans.( ) , ++, /


16.Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G

Ans.*+ABC/-DG

18. B-tree (failure nodes at same level)


19. Dense index (index record appers for every search -key in file)


20.What is the efficiency of merge sort

Ans. O(n log n)


21.A program on swaping ( 10,5 )was given (candidate cannot recollect)


22.In which layer are routers used

Ans.In network layer


23.In which layer are packets formed ( in network layer )

24.heap ( priority queue )


25.copy constructor ( constant reference )


26.Which of the following sorting algorithem has average sorting behavior --
Bubble sort,merge sort,heap sort,exchange sort

Ans. Heap sort


27.In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values--Inorder ,post order,preorder

Ans.Inorder


28.What are device drivers used for

Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware


29. Irrevalent to unix command ( getty)


30.What is fork command in unix

Ans. System call used to create process


31.What is make command in unix

Ans. Used forcreation of more than one file


32.In unix .profile contains

Ans. Start up program


33.In unix echo is used for ( answer C)


34.In unix 'ls 'stores contents in

Ans.inode block

IBM Placement Paper

Aptitude Questions
1. A clerk multiplied a number by ten when it should have been divided by ten. The answer he got was 100.what should the answer have been?


2.If Rs20/- is available to pay for typing a research report & typist A produces 42 pages and typist B produces 28 pages. How much should typist A receive?


3. The average salary of 3 workers is Rs.95 per week. If one earns Rs.115 and second earns Rs.65 how much is the salary of the 3rd worker.


4. A 16 stored building has 12000 sq.feet on each floor. Company A rents 7 floors and company B rents 4 floors. What is the number of sq.feet of unrented floor space?


5. During a given week a programmer spends 1/4 of his time preparing flow chart, 3/8 of his time coding and the rest of the time in debugging the programs. If he works 48 hours during the week, how many hours did he spend debugging the program?


6. A company installed 36 machines at the beginning of the year. In March they installed 9 additional machines and then disconnected 18 in August. How many were still installed at the end of the year.


7. A man owns 2/3 of the market research bureau business and sells 3/4 of his shares for Rs.75000. What is the value of Business?

8. If 12 file cabinets require 18 feet of wall space, how many feet of wall space will 30 cabinets require?


9. A computer printer produced 176,400 lines in a given day. If the printer was in operation for seven hours during the day, how many lines did it print per minute?


10. From its total income, a sales company spent Rs.20000 for advertising, half of the remainder on commissions and had Rs.6000 left. What was its total income?


11. On Monday a banker processed a batch of cheques, on Tuesday she processed three times as many, and on Wednesday she processed 4000 cheques. In the three days, she processed 16000 cheques. How many did she process on Tuesday?


12. The cost of four dozen proof machine ribbons and five dozen accounting machine ribbons was Rs.160/-. If one dozen accounting machine ribbons cost Rs.20/-, what is the cost of a dozen proof machine ribbons?


13. If a clerk can process 80 cheques in half an hour, how many cheques can she process in a seven and one half hour day?


14. In a library, there are two racks with 40 books per rack. On a given day, 30 books were issued. What fraction remained in racks?


15. The average length of three tapes is 6800 feet. None of the tapes is less than 6400 feet. What is the greatest possible length of one of the other tapes?


16. A company rented a machine for Rs.700/- a month. Five years later the treasurer calculated that if the company had purchased the machine and paid Rs.100/- monthly maintenance charge, the company would have saved Rs.2000/-. What was the purchase price of the machine?


17. Two computers each produced 48000 public utility bills in a day. One computer printed bills at the rate of 9600 an hour and the other at the rate of 7800 an hour. When the first computer finished its run, how many bills did the other computer still have to print?

18. If a salesman's average is a new order every other week, he will break the office record of the year. However, after 28 weeks, he is six orders behind schedule. In what proportion of the remaining weeks does he have to obtain a new order to break the record?


19. On a given day, a bank had 16000 cheques returned by customers. Inspection of the first 800 cheques indicated that 100 of those 800 had errors and were therefore the available immediately for data processing. On this basis, how many cheques would be available immediately for data processing on that day?


20. A company figured it needed 37.8 sq.feet of carpet for its reception room. To allow for waste, it decided to order 20% more material than needed. Fractional parts of sq.feet cannot be ordered. At Rs.9/- a sq.feet, how much would the carpet cost?


21. A tape manufacturer reduces the price of his heavy duty tape from Rs.30/- to Rs.28/- a reel and the price of a regular tape from Rs.24/- to Rs.23/- a reel. A computing centre normally spends Rs.1440/- a month for tapes and 3/4 of this is for heavy duty tapes. How much will they save a month under the new prices?


22. In a team of 12 persons, 1/3 is women and 2/3 is men. To obtain a team with 20% women how many men should be hired?


23. The dimensions of a certain machine are 48" X 30" X 52". If the size of the machine is increased proportionately until the sum of its dimensions equals 156", what will be the increase in the shortest side?


24. In a certain company, 20% of the men and 40% of the women attended the annual company picnic. If 35% of all the employees are man, what percent of all the employees went to the picnic?


25. It cost a college Rs.0.70 a copy to produce a Program for the homecoming football game. If Rs.15,000/- was received for advertisements in the program, how many copies at Rs.0.50 a copy must be sold to make a profit of Rs.8000/- ?

Cognizant Placement Paper

Technical Interview Questions
1. Which is the best page replacement algorithm and why?

2. What is software life cycle?

3. How much time is spent usually in each phases and why?

4. What is testing?

5. Which are the different types of testing?

6. Which are the different phases in Software life cycle?

7. Why is analysis and testing phases very important?

8. Why networks are layered? What is the advantage of that?

9. How many layers are there in OSI? Why is it called OSI model?

10. Which are the different network topologies?

11. Give an example of bus type network.

12. What is the Bandwidth of Ethernet?

13. Explain the advantage and disadvantage of Ethernet?

14. Which is the protocol used in Ethernet. (CSMA/CD) Why is it called so?

15. What is the advantage of Ring network?

16. Compare it with Ethernet.

17. What is inheritance, encapsulation etc.

18. If there are too many page faults what is the problem?

19. Which one you will use to implement critical section? Binary Semaphore

20. Which one is not done by Data link layer? bit stuffing, LRC, CRC ,parity check

21. Which one is not suitable for client-server application? TCP/IP, message passing, RPC, none of the above.

CMC Placement Paper

Technical Questions

1. What is NFS? (Networking File System).
2. What is BIOS? (Basic Input Output System).
3. What is RPC? (Remote Procedure Call).                                                         
4. What is the output?
       main()
         {
          int i=5;
          if(i>5);
           {
            i=100;
            printf(" %d ",i);
           }
         }
          a. 100
5. For sorting of N elements how many comparisons are required?                     
6. What is a daemon process?
7. What is the use of fork system call?
8. In CPU scheduling, non preemptive or pre emptive which one is best?
9. If two entities have m, n elements. What is the result of cross product?   

10. For every table, is foreign key mandatory?
11. What is operator over loading?
12. What is Inheritance? Types of Inheritance.
13. Given base address of an array. Find the address of given element.
14.   main ()
            {
            int x=32;
            x=x>>6;
            printf ("%d", x);
           }
         what is the output?
15.   main ()
             {
             int x=5;
            x=x----1;
            printf ("%d", x);                                                                         
           }
         Output?

16. Find number of bytes of a given structure.

17. Is it possible for a member function of a class to activate another member function of the    same class?

18. Why is Object Oriented programming useful?

19. How does inheritance related to abstraction?

20. What kind of functions can access private member variables of a class?